Virginia State 4-H

Test 2000

1. The return of horses to the North American continent was facilitated by the Spanish Explorers and Missionaries, and the Spanish horses became widely dispersed over the plains from about 1650 to 1750.

a. True

b. False

H7

2. Colic can result from which of the following potential causes?

a. Over consumption of grain

b. Consuming moldy hay

c. Parasites

d. All of the above

H14

3. The following characteristics describe which breed of horses: chiseled, dished face, long refined, arched neck set high on the withers, and shoulders; well laid back shoulders and level croups.

a. Thoroughbreds

b. Standardbreds

c. Arabians

d. Morgans

H18

4. The following are dilutions of basic colors of horses: (a) chestnut dilutes to palomino or dun (b) bay dilutes to buckskin or dun and (c) black dilutes to grulla.

a. True

b. False

H51

5. The following markings describe which paint horse pattern:

(1) white does not cross the back;

(2) one or more legs are dark;

(3) the head is often bald, apron or bonnet-faced;

(4) the white body markings are irregular spotted or splashy;

(5) the tail is usually one color.

a. Tobiano

b. Overo

c. Tovero

d. Oblongato

H47

6. The olecrannon is attached to which larger bone?

a. Mandible

b. Ulna

c. Tibia

d. Patella

H91

7. Which of the following is not used to estimate the age of horses by examining the teeth?

a. Galvaynes groove

b. Cups

c. Tooth eruptions

d. Fossas

H94

8. The terms ST, FTH, and FT are used to classify which of the following?

a. Horseshoe size

b. Muscle fiber types

c. Respiratory function

d. Respiratory sounds

H101

9. Normal resting heart rate in a horse is 35 beats per minute (bpm). What is the maximum heart rate during intense exercise?

a. 240 bpm

b. 2,000 bpm

c. 630 bpm

d. 70 bpm

H113

10. All of these blemishes or unsoundnesses are found below the fetlock except which one?

a. Navicular Disease

b. Ringbone

c. Side bones

d. Bone spavin

H159

11. When the feet land in this sequence: (a) right hind; (b) left hind, right front; (c) left front, what gait is the horse performing?

a. Canter, right lead

b. Canter, left lead

c. Gallop

d. Rack

H176

12. All of the vices below are behavioral abnormalities except which one?

a. Paddling

b. Striking

c. Cribbing

d. Weaving

H181

13. Rasping or filing down the sharp projections on the cheek teeth is known as “floating the teeth”. How often should the teeth be checked for sharp edges?

a. Daily

b. Weekly

c. Monthly

d. Yearly

H95

14. Young horses that are showing signs of colic, depression, grinding the teeth and perhaps lying upside down on back may be displaying signs of which of the following conditions?

a. Carbohydrateitis

b. Associative syndrome

c. Scratches

d. Gastric Ulcers

H191

15. Approximately 95% of the food particles destined to appear in the feces pass through the digestive tract within how many hours after ingestion?

a. 4 hours

b. 24 hours

c. 75 hours

d. 36 hours

H194

16. _____ is converted to Vitamin A in the tissues of horses.

a. Thiamin

b. B-Carotene

c. Sunlight

d. Linoleic acid

H200

17. Selenium and _____ act synergistically to prevent peroxides from destroying muscle tissue resulting in muscular dystrophy or white muscle disease.

a. Ferritin

b. Zinc

c. Ascorbic acid

d. Vit. E

H234

18. Metabolic bone disease includes all of the following conditions:

(1) Osteochondrosis

(2) Physititis

(3) Flexoral deformities and

(4) Cervical vertebral malformation

a. True

b. False

H265

19. Only one of the following general management guidelines is true; which one is the correct one?

a. Limit exercise

b. Do not overfeed

c. Feed at irregular times

d. Make changes in types of feeds rapidly

H283

20. The concentration of _________ increases in mammary secretions and can be determined with a water hardness test just prior to foaling.

a. Iron

b. Lipid

c. Protein

d. Calcium

H417

21. Flexed carpi, nape posture, transverse dorsal presentation and wry neck are all descriptions of which of the following?

a. Conformation defects

b. Vaulting performance manners

c. Tests for soundness

d. Malpositions of foals

H424

22. Name the disease which is caused by a specific herpes virus that results in an acute upper respiratory tract infection and may also cause abortions.

a. Equine Viral Arteritis

b. Equine Encephalomyelitis

c. Strangles

d. Tetanus

H600

23. All of the following are initials for diseases except which one?

a. EVA

b. EVR

c. EIA

d. IRS

H598

24. The following is a description of which parasite: the adult flies are blind and never feed; they deposit their eggs on the hair shafts; larva burrow into the mouth malt at second stage; are swallowed then attach to the lining of the stomach.

a. Ascarid

b. Strongyles

c. Tapeworm

d. Bots

H633

25. This class of parasites damage the cranial mesenteric artery frequently causing thrombosis which may lead to colic. Which of the following class of parasites is correct?

a. Strongyles

b. Ascarid

c. Bots

d. Tapeworm

H623

Answers

© AC Daugherty

Last Revised June 25, 2002

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